tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Thu Aug 07 17:07:19 2003
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Re: KLBC: The years sometimes teach us what the days never know.
- From: "David Trimboli" <[email protected]>
- Subject: Re: KLBC: The years sometimes teach us what the days never know.
- Date: Thu, 07 Aug 2003 18:04:08 -0400
>From: [email protected]
>The examples cited in TKD are {tIjwI'ghom vIchenmoH}, which comes from the
>intransitive verb {chen} and so is irrelevant,
Why? If we accept
tlhIngan Hol ghoj
He learns Klingon.
and
*ghaHvaD tlhIngan Hol vIghojmoH
I cause him to learn Klingon.
why isn't it
chen tIjwI'ghom
The boarding party forms.
*tIjwI'ghomvaD jIchenmoH
I cause the boarding party to form.
or something like that?
>So why is the object of verb + {-moH} assumed to differ from that of plain
>verb?
You tell me. Okrand does it all the time with verbs that do not obviously
take an object (Say', quv, boch, etc.). Why does the object of an
intransitive verb change (from none to the thing taking the quality), while
the transitive verbs don't?
I now see what you're getting at with */ghojmoH/, and I will downgrade my
claim of "definitely correct" to "gimme a break." Explain to me why
intransitive verbs change objects while transitive verbs do not.
By the way, when analyzing /HIQoymoH/ "cause me to hear (something)," it is
important to remember that verbs that could take objects but do not have one
can be interpreted as having a general, indefinite object. /HIQoymoH/ can
easily be seen as /jIH HIQoymoH/ rather than /jIHvaD [vay'] yIQoymoH/ by
recognizing that the doer of /Qoy/ is not specified as /Qoy/ing anything in
particular (because there's no place for what he'd /Qoy/). Thus, "Cause me
to hear" can be interpreted as "Cause me to hear (something)," referring to
an indefinite or general, and unstated, object. "Cause me to do the action
/Qoy/. I don't care WHAT I /Qoy/, just make me /Qoy/.
SuStel
Stardate 3600.0
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