tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Sat Aug 02 13:37:57 2003

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be'Hom loDHom je

• From: Hakuohalakahiki Dei nucis naHQun El dios de piña <[email protected]>
• Subject: be'Hom loDHom je
• Date: Sat, 2 Aug 2003 13:33:21 -0500

alright, I know that <be'Hom> is girl
and that <loDHom> is boy
and like wise <be'> and <loD> are male, female/man, woman
respectively.
And <-Hom> is a diminutive suffix; which all makes sense.

But it would also make sense that since we have a <be'> and a <be'Hom>
to have a <be''a'>

How would that be perceived/translated?

Thank you,


~naHQun

jatlh vetlh:
        <weH!>
http://www.angelfire.com/tx4/purpleelaphants

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