tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Tue Jan 22 23:59:15 2002
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Re: 'e' with a to be verb
- From: [email protected]
- Subject: Re: 'e' with a to be verb
- Date: Tue, 22 Jan 2002 23:59:08 EST
ghItlh qurgh:
qurgh is not as far off as you make out, but not for the reason he thinks:
> > Hmm.... if I say 'e' vISov, 'e' is acting as the object, qar'a'?
> >
> > If I do DIS QaQ vISov, DIS QaQ is the object and QaQ is acting as an
> > adjective.
> >
> > So why does 'e' become a subject when I use a verb as an adjective on
> > it?
>
> But this says "I know a good year". It doesn't say "I know the year is
> good".
>
But, {QaQ DIS 'e' vISov} does mean "I know a good year", being literally
"A year is good. I know this." So, while his original phrase {'e' QaQ
vISov} is wrong, {QaQ 'e' vISov} is right: "I know that is good", literally
"It
is good. This I know". The thing is, {'e'} doesn't refer to the subject at
all, but to the verbal phrase {QaQ}. The subject of {QaQ} is implied,
probably
something like {ghu'} or {wanI'}. We can say {'eyqu'} "Tasty!" about some
food without needing an expressed subject, and the {QaQ 'e' vISov} phrase
doesn't need it either. {QaQ!} "That's good!" is a valid sentence all by
itself.
The {'e'} is used as the object of {vISov} to refer to {QaQ} in order to tie
the
two verbs together.
-- ter'eS
http://www.geocities.com/teresh000