tlhIngan-Hol Archive: Sun Oct 27 12:15:00 1996

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The FAQ section 3.5 -- charghwI' !?!


First -- Holtej,


Nice job !! :-) I wish that there had been a FAQ when I joined the list ---
has Lawrence updated the list-joining message yet ? It should point newbies
at the FAQ straight away.


And now for a question about a question {{:-) I guess this is directed at
charghwI' seeing as it's his explanation.

FAQ Section 3.5 -- Indirect objects.

Now, indirect objects are explained on page 180 of my TKD. Fair enough. That
I understand. What I've not seen before is the other form of indirect
object (errr, unless I've REALLY misunderstood something in which case all
of this may be complete wibble ...)


I'll assume past tense for my english.


vIjatlh.  I said/spoke it.  Fine and dandy.


qajatlh.  I spoke (to) you.  Fair enough - examples are given in TKD where a
verb's object is a pronoun (or implied through a prefix) and so the "to" is
automatically inferred.


{Qapla'} vIjatlh.  I said "Qapla'".  Hokey dokey.


SoHvaD {Qapla'} vIjatlh.  I said "Qapla'" for/to you.  Fine - TKD p180.


... but this one ...


{Qapla'} qajatlh.  I said "Qapla'" to you.  I spoke to you: Qapla' !??


... hmmm ... I'd expect a little more along the lines of "I spoke to you and
when I did I said {Qapla'}" or "When I spoke to you I said {Qapla'}" or at
least SOMETHING more than the simple construction above.

I've just not had call to use verbs like this before. I don't see how one
can just "stick a noun on the front" and automatically imply an indirect
object. For me, the only "correct" way is as explained in the TKD addendum
using {-vaD}. Perhaps I just need a little coaching on some wierd
object/subject thing that I've messed up on somewhere ... ??

Not that I wouldn't accept the form as valid, of course, but I still have to
ask "Where does this usage originate from ?" because if I didn't, I'd be
falling down on my duties as a keen newbie learner {{:-)


jIghojlaHmeH HIDev, charghwI'.



nI'jaj yInlIj, 'ej batlh bIHeghjaj.


Qorbeq


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